TD - Denied
1.The first thing to observe is the definition of sin. cp. 1 John 3:4 - where the Bible says that sin is the 'transgression of the law." This proves that sin is not inherited, but is the actual transgression (act) done. Compare this with the end of the Presbyterian Confession of Faith which states that the GUILT of THIS (Adam's sin) SIN WAs IMPUTED ... From this original corruption ... do proceed all ACTUAL transgressions." The Bible rather teaches that to be guilty of sin - one must himself transgress the law!
2.The second thing to observe is that the Bible specifically states that God does NOT impute the GUILT of sin to anyone but the one who does it! Ezek. 18:4-10; Deut. 24:16; etc. Adam's children did not bear Adam's guilt - hence they could not have passed it on -- they never had it.
3.The nature of "children" is a subject of this discussion - hence we would refer you to Jesus's statements in Matt. 18:3 and Matt. 19:4. Children are said to be "of such is the kingdom of heaven" and MEN are exhorted to BECOME LIKE CHILDREN (depraved or otherwise??)
4.Study the book of Genesis and see what differences you see in Adam before and after the "fall". He could hear God, understand God, fear God, worship God, and be enticed to sin BEFORE the eating of the fruit. What about AFTER? He heard God, he feared God, he was able to understand God (he talked with Him), and he was able to be tempted to do evil. How much change in his character? If we are born with the same capabilities of Adam, then we too can hear God, understand God, fear God, etc. One does NOT learn about inherited total depravity by reading about Adam and Eve!
5.What shall we do with Jesus. It says of men that "the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same", and that "in ALL THINGS it behoved Him to be made like unto his brethren, (Heb. 2:14-17). The Catholics, anticipating this argument, invented the doctrine of the immaculate conception of Mary, so that Jesus was born of one in which this original stain would not be, hence it was not passed to him. Then was Mary also with out "Adamic sin"? How could she be if her mother wasn't, her grandmother, her great-grandmother...Eve?
6.Why is it that when Adam sinned - the GUILT was pass on but when one becomes a Christian and hence RIGHTEOUS - that THAT is NOT passed on? Could we not equally as well speak about one being totally inheritedly righteous? Why NOT???
7.Consequences of such teaching -