LA - Affirmed
John Murray, professor of systematic theology at Westminster Theological Seminary, Philadelphia, used the following points in his REDEMPTION - ACCOMPLISHED AND APPLIED.
1.ROMANS 8:31-39.
a.for us, vs. 31; = the elect of 28-30.
b.all of 32 = all of us elect.
c.Christ then delivered up ONLY for the elect.
a.True - except for the word only.
c.Other scriptures also must be considered. Not use this context which does talk only about the elect and then use it to modify those which talk about all men! That is what he does with it though!
d.This passage talks about the benefits of salvation - NOT THE POSSIBILITY!
2.EPH. 2:4-7; (Rom. 6:2-4, 2 Cor. 5:14-15; Col. 3:3)
a.All those that Christ died for are "dead with Christ".
b.Not all are dead with Christ.
c.therefore - Christ did not die for all.
a.It is the first statement that is in error!
b.Those who are "dead with Christ" are those who have believed, been baptized, and are now "crucifying the old man" - Gal. 2:; Rom. 6, etc. When this passage was written YOU were not "dead with Christ"! - but you are now since you believed! This does not deal with WHO or HOW MANY can crucify the old man!
3.If the sacrifice if efficacious for all, and some die, then it is not efficacious at all.
a.We know that it is not efficacious (producing an intended effect) in the sense that it provides universal salvation without conditions.
b.still, we need to talk about the potential ability of it, not what is realized!
c.To say that it is potential for all, yet does not effectually cleanse all, is a scriptural idea. Example, the gospel is for all (Mark 16:15). The gospel produces faith (Rom. 10:17). Yet not all believe it. Is the gospel therefore "non-efficacious"? NO - it is still the power of God to save those who believe (Rom. 1:16).
d.Christ sacrifice has the potential to save ALL men - but it produces the effect ONLY on those who believe in Him.
4."Did Christ come to make the salvation of all men possible, to remove obstacles that stood in the way of salvation, and merely to make provision for salvation? OR did he come to save his people?"
a.The problem is the either/or type of question. This assumes that there are NO other possible answers to this question!
1.Christ could have come to do neither.
2.Christ could have come to do one of these PLUS other things.
3.Christ could have come to do BOTH, WHICH IS WHAT HE DID!
NOTICE HEBREWS 5:8-9; MATT. 1:21
"though he were a Son, yet learned he obedience by the things which he suffered; and being made perfect, he became the author of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him:"
"...thou shalt call his name Jesus: for he shall save His people from theirs sins."
Inthese two verses we have BOTH points. He came to EFFECTUALLY save and to make it possible for all who believe to be saved!
1.Christ came to save the elect ONLY
2.Christ came to seek and save that which was lost. Luke 19:10
3.Therefore only the elect are lost! all others are safe?
OTHER ARGUMENTS FROM OTHER CALVINISTS INCLUDE:
5.JOHN 10:11-15
a.From this text it is taught that Jesus died for "Sheep" and for no others.
b.TRUE = BUT WHO ARE THE SHEEP IN THIS PASSAGE?
1.those who hear his voice (v.3), follow him (v.4), hear his voice (16).
c.The point is that being a sheep is conditional - and that whosoever does these conditions are then the sheep for whom Jesus died for!
6.Acts 20:28
a.From this it is alleged that Jesus purchased the church - the elect.
b.This speaks of those who have "received the word" - Acts 2:41, and hence been added to the church (Acts 2:47) - the body of Christ which is made up of those redeemed by the blood of Christ! It does not deal with the possibilities of becoming a Christian and a member of the church of Christ.
7.Eph. 5:25-27
a.This is the same type argument as above. It only deals with the end effect, not the possibility of who can be saved.
8."US" and "our" used to refer to the "elect" and exclude "them," the non-elect. Isa. 53:4-6;
Titus 2:14; 1 Cor. 5:7).
a."All" equals the "us." have not the non-elect "gone astray" (Isa. 53:6)?
b.Grace which brings salvation hath appeared to all men" (Titus 2:11).
c.Christ was the sacrifice for the world (1 Cor. 5:7; Jn.l:29).
d.1 John 2:2 - not for OURS ONLY but ALSO for the sis of the world!
9.Christ died for "many," not for "all" (Isa. 53:12; Matt. 20:28; 26:28).
a.Would not "all" represent "many"?
b."Many is used, but not always, to signify only a portion and not all (1 Cor. 12:14).
c."Many" is used to mean "all" (Rom. 12:4,5; 1 Cor. 10:17.
d.Many is sometimes used interchangeably with All - cp. Rom. 5:l2ff
e.The "Ransom for many" equals the "ransom for all" (Matt. 20:28; 1 Tim. 2:6).
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